Number of questions- 200

1. Who has been appointed as the Chairman designate of Tata Sons Ltd.?

1. Ratan Tata
2. Cyrus Broacha
3. Sunil Mittal
4. Cyrus P. Mistry.

Answer: (d)

2. Which of the following is not an eligibility criterion for election as President of India?

1. Should be a citizen of India
2. Should be at least 35 years of age
3. Should be qualified for election to the House of the People
4. He should be elected as a member of the House of the People.

Answer: (d)

3. Who is the current Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

1. Meira Kumar
2. Somnath Chatterjee
3. Najma Heptullah
4. P.A. Sangma.

Answer: (a)

4. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

1. Vice President of India
2. President of India
3. Home Minister of India
4. Prime Minister of India.

Answer: (a)

5. Which one of the following thinkers called jurisprudence as “Philosophy of Positive Law”?

1. Salmond
2. H.L. A. Hart
3. Roscoe Pound
4. John Austin.

Answer: (d)

6. Fundamental Rights are contained in which part of the Constitution of India?

1. Part II
2. Part III
3. Part IV
4. Part V.

Answer: (b)

7. The term of office of the President of India is:

1. 5 years from date of his election
2. 5 years from date of his entering upon his office
3. 7 years from date of his election
4. 7 years from date of his entering upon his office.

Answer: (b)

8. Which of the following is not a Presidency Court?

1. Bombay High Court
2. Calcutta High Court
3. Madras High Court
4. Jabalpur High Court.

Answer: (d)

9. Who is the current Solicitor General of India?

1. R.F. Nariman
2. F.N. Nariman
3. Vahanvati
4. Subramanian.

Answer: (a)

10. “Communist Manifesto” was authored by:

1. Jeremy Bentham and Karl Marx
2. Kant and Friedrich Engels
3. Joseph Stalin and Vladimir Lenin
4. Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels.

Answer: (d)

11. In which year was the Council of States first constituted?

1. 1951
2. 1952
3. 1956
4. 1947.

Answer: (b)

12. The SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2009 rescinded:

1. SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 1997
2. SEBI (Disclosure and Investor Protection) Guidelines, 2000
3. SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992
4. SEBI (Delisting of Securities) Guidelines, 2003.

Answer: (b)

13. How many elected members are there in the Council of States?

1. 250
2. 240
3. 238
4. 135.

Answer: (c)

14. The Cabinet Committee recommended that FDI limits in multi brand retail be raised to …….. in November, 2011.

1. 100%
2. 26%
3. 74%
4. 51%.

Answer: (d)

15. What is the minimum qualifying age for being a member of the Parliament?

1. 21 years
2. 18 years
3. 35 years
4. 25 years.

Answer: (d)

16. The identity cards issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India are called:

1. Aadarsh
2. Aakash
3. Aadhaar
4. Pehchaan.

Answer: (c)

17. Which President of Egypt was ousted on February 11, 2011?

1. Hosni Mubarak
2. Anwar Sadat
3. Hafez Al-Assad
4. Yasser Arafat.

Answer: (a)

18. Where would the Commonwealth Games 2014 be held?

1. Glasgow
2. Seoul
3. Perth
4. Gold Coast.

Answer: (a)

19. Which of the following is not a writ mentioned in the Constitution?

1. Quo Warranto
2. Certiorari
3. Prohibition
4. Interrogatory.

Answer: (d)

20. Who is the second Indian Cricketer to break the 13,000 runs barrier in Test Cricket?

1. Sachin Tendulkar
2. Virender Sehwag
3. Sourav Ganguly
4. Rahul Dravid.

Answer: (d)

21. Osama Bin Laden was killed by US Forces in which city?

1. Jaffarabad
2. Ahmedabad
3. Abbottabad
4. Faisalabad.

Answer: (c)

22. Where are the headquarters of International Labour Organisation situated?

1. Geneva
2. Prague
3. London
4. Hague.

Answer: (a)

23. Who was the CEO of Apple Inc. who expired in October, 2011?

1. Steven Seagal
2. Stevie Wonders
3. Steve Waugh
4. Steve Jobs.

Answer: (d)

24. Who is the current Foreign Minister of Pakistan?

1. Farooq Leghari
2. Sherry Rehman
3. Shah Mehmood Qureshi
4. Hina Rabbani Khar.

Answer: (d)

25. Who is the current Secretary of State of the United States of America?

1. Hillary Clinton
2. Condoleezza Rice
3. Colin Powell
4. Madeleine Albright.

Answer: (a)

26. Who is the founder of the Non-Profit Organization WikiLeaks?

1. Julian Barnes
2. Julian Assange
3. Jules Verne
4. Julianne Moore.

Answer: (b)

27. The National Animal of India is:

1. Lion
2. Peacock
3. Tiger
4. Elephant.

Answer: (c)

28. How many spokes does the Ashoka Chakra have?

1. 12
2. 18
3. 24
4. 30.

Answer: (c)

29. Which one of the following is an incorrect statement?

1. Fundamental rights are in Part III of the Constitution
2. Directive Principles of State Policy are in Part IV of the Constitution
3. Fundamental Duties are in Part IV of the Constitution
4. Union Territories are in Part VIII of the Constitution.

Answer: (c)

30. Retirement age of a High Court Judge:

1. Is the same as the retirement age for a District Judge
2. Is the same as the retirement age of a Supreme Court Judge
3. Is lower than the retirement age for a District Judge
4. Is lower than the retirement age for a Supreme Court Judge.

Answer: (d)

31. Habeas Corpus literally means:

1. Produce the body
2. Produce the record
3. Produce the evidence
4. Produce the testimony.

Answer: (a)

32. The correct form of address for the President of India is:

1. His Lordship
2. His Owner
3. His Highness
4. His Excellency.

Answer: (d)

33. The full form of UNESCO is:

1. United Nations Education, Science and Culture Organization
2. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
3. United Nations Educational, Social and Cultural Organization
4. United Nations Economic, Social and Cultural Organization.

Answer: (b)

34. The term ‘2G’ stands for:

1. 2 Giga Hz
2. Secondary Giga Bytes
3. Second Generation
4. Twin Spectrum Relays.

Answer: (c)

35. The President of the UN General Assembly is from which country?

1. Switzerland
2. Nicaragua
3. Libya
4. Qatar.

Answer: (d)

36. Who of the following was not awarded the Padma Vibhushan Award in 2010?

1. Zohra Sehgal
2. Yaga Venugopal Reddy
3. Aamir Khan
4. Pratap Chandra Reddy.

Answer: (c)

37. Which of the following is not true?

1. The Gauhati High Court exercise jurisdiction over 7 states
2. The Bombay High Court has original jurisdiction
3. Filings in the Supreme Court can only be done by an Advocate-On-Record
4. Supreme Court is the only Court of Record.

Answer: (d)

38. How many gold medals did India win in the Commonwealth Games 2010?

1. 38
2. 36
3. 33
4. 41.

Answer: (a)

39. The famous Charminar monument is situated at:

1. Agra
2. Hyderabad
3. Ahmedabad
4. Bangalore.

Answer: (b)

40. Which of the following rivers does not flow west to east?

1. Ganga
2. Yamuna
3. Satluj
4. Narmada.

Answer: (d)

41. Who is the highest ranked Indian player in world ATP tennis?

1. Leander Paes
2. Mahesh Bhupathi
3. Rabi Bopanna
4. Somdev Devvarman.

Answer: (d)

42. Which of the following is not a Nobel Prize Winner?

1. C.V. Raman
2. Amartya Sen
3. Mahatma Gandhi
4. Rabindranath Tagore.

Answer: (c)

43. Who won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2009?

1. Barack H. Obama
2. Nicolas Sarkozy
3. Tony Blair
4. Silvio Berlusconi.

Answer: (a)

44. Who was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India?

1. Justice Sujata Manohar
2. Justice Leila Seth
3. Justice Fathima Biwi
4. Justice Ruma Pal.

Answer: (c)

45. Blood cancer is commonly known as:

1. Anaemia
2. Leukemia
3. Leucoderma
4. Bulimia.

Answer: (b)

46. International Court of Justice is located at:

1. Prague
2. Geneva
3. Washington DC
4. Hague.

Answer: (d)

47. What does the term “de jure” mean?

1. As per law
2. As per a jury
3. Without reference to law
4. Factually.

Answer: (a)

48. What does the term “a priori” mean?

1. Deductive
2. Presumed
3. Inductive
4. Without reasoning.

Answer: (a)

49. Which country has recently voted to overturn a decades-old ban on uranium sales to India, despite being a nation outside the nuclear non-proliferation treaty?

1. Austria
2. USA
3. France
4. Australia.

Answer: (d)

50. “The Pure Theory of Law which saw law as a “Norm of Action” was advocated by:

1. A.V. Dicey
2. Leon Duguit
3. Francois Geny
4. Hans Kelsen.

Answer: (d)

51. The Preamble to the Constitution of India:

1. Contains the Resolution to constitute India into inter alia a Socialist Republic, since the framing of the Constitution
2. The word ‘Socialist’ was incorporated in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment with effect from 3rd January, 1977
3. Never contained the word ‘Socialist’
4. The Word ‘Socialist’ was dropped by the 42nd Amendment (supra).

Answer: (b)

52. The basic structure doctrine with respect to the Constitution of India:

1. Was propounded first in the judgment of the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
2. Is contained in the Constitution itself
3. Was propounded first in the judgment of the Supreme Court in A. K. Gopalan v. Government of India. (I. C. Golaknath and others v. State of Punjab)
4. Was propounded first in the Privy Purse case.

Answer: (a)

53. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment:

1. Is guaranteed to all citizens of India
2. Is guaranteed to all residents of India
3. Is available to persons of Indian origin irrespective of citizenship
4. ls not provided for in the Constitution.

Answer: (a)

54. The prohibition against prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once:

1. Is a principle of natural justice
2. Is contained in the Indian Penal Code
3. Is contained in the Constitution of India
4. Is a principle evolved by the courts.

Answer: (c)

55. The Constitution has vested the executive power of the Union Government in:

1. The President
2. The Prime Minister
3. The Council of Ministers
4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

56. Which right is a Constitutional Right but not a Fundamental Right?

1. Right to life and liberty
2. Right to move freely throughout the territory of India
3. Right to form an association
4. Right to hold property.

Answer: (d)

57. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I

(I) Habeas corpus

(II) Mandamus

(III) Quo warranto

(IV) Certiorari

List II

(A) Violation of natural justice

(B) Unlawful arrest and detention

(C) Exercise of power without jurisdiction

(D) Non-performance of public duty

Codes:

1. I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A
2. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
3. I-B, II-C, lll-D, IV-A
4. I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B.

Answer: (a)

58. Members of Legislative Bodies enjoy the privilege of exemption from arrest or detention in prison:

1. Only under civil process and during the continuance of a Joint Sitting/Meeting/Conference or Joint Committee of Houses of Parliament or Houses of State Legislature as the case may be and during 40 days before and after such Sitting/Meeting/Conference
2. Under civil as well as criminal process and at all times save with the permission of the Speaker or the Chairperson as the case may be
3. Under civil as well as criminal process but only when the House is in Session
4. Do not enjoy any such exemption.

Answer: (a)

59. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India:

1. Exercises powers in relation to the accounts of Union and States only
2. Besides (a) supra can also exercise powers in relation to the accounts of any other authority or Body as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament
3. Besides (a)) & (b) above, can also exercise powers in relation to accounts of Companies (Private Sector) to which Nationalized Banks and Financial Institutions have advanced monies
4. Besides (a) & (b) above can exercise powers in relation to accounts of only those Companies (Private Sector) in which the investment of Nationalized Banks & Financial Institutions is by way of equity.

Answer: (b)

60. Article 14 does not encompass:

1. Equality before law
2. Equal protection of laws
3. Protection against arbitrary action
4. Protection of life and liberty.

Answer: (d)

61. Rights under Article 19 are:

1. Available to all person in India
2. Available only to citizens of India
3. Are available to persons of foreign origin
4. Both b and c above.

Answer: (b)

62. A decision or finding given by a Court or a Tribunal without jurisdiction:

1. Can operate as res judicata under all circumstances
2. Cannot operate as res judicata
3. Cannot operate as res judicata under certain circumstances only
4. May operate as res judicata or may not operate as res judicata.

Answer: (b)

63. The maximum pecuniary jurisdiction of the Court of Civil Judge in Delhi is of Rupees Three Lakhs. ‘A’ files a plaint in the Court of the Civil Judge for recovery of Rupees Three Lakhs together with interest @18% per annum from the date of institution of the suit till realization:

1. The Civil Judge is required to immediately return the plaint for filing in the Court of appropriate pecuniary jurisdiction
2. Civil Judge is required to try the suit and return the plaint only if after trial and hearing finds A entitled to any amount in excess of Rupees Three Lakhs
3. The Civil Judge is empowered to try and decide the suit
4. The Civil Judge is required to decide the suit and if finds ‘A’ entitled to the decree, pass a decree for recovery of Rupees Three Lakhs and give liberty to ‘A’ to approach the Court of appropriate jurisdiction by a separate proceeding for recovery of the balance amount to which he has been found entitled.

Answer: (c)

64. A suit for partition of properties situated in different cities:

1. Cannot be instituted and separate suits have to be filed in each of the cities where the properties are situated
2. Can be instituted in a city where any of the properties is situated
3. Can be instituted in a city where majority of the properties or properties/property of maximum value is situated
4. Can be instituted where the defendants or any of them reside(s).

Answer: (b)

65. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Temporary injunction may be granted only at the time of institution of a suit
2. Temporary injunction may be granted at any stage of a suit
3. Temporary injunctions are regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
4. Temporary injunctions are a form of preventive relief.

Answer: (a)

66. As per the Civil Procedure Code as applicable to Delhi, a suit for specific performance of a contract of sale of immovable property can be filed:

1. Only in the Court within whose jurisdiction the property is situated
2. Either in the Court where the immovable property is situated or also in the Court where the defendant resides
3. Besides the Courts mentioned in B above, also in the Court within those jurisdiction the Contract was entered into
4. Only in the High Court of Delhi.

Answer: (a)

67. An ex-parte decree can be set aside:

1. Under Order 9, Rule 5 of CPC
2. Under Order 9, Rule 10 of CPC
3. Under Order 9, Rule 13 of CPC
4. Under Order 9, Rule 11 of CPC.

Answer: (c)

68. A garnishee order is an order:

1. Prohibiting the judgment debtor’s debtor from making any payment to the judgment debtor
2. Directing the decree holder to take the payment from the judgment debtor’s debtor
3. Both a & b above
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

69. A suit may be defeated due to:

1. Non-joinder of a proper party
2. Misjoinder of a necessary party
3. Non-joinder of a necessary party
4. Misjoinder of a proper party.

Answer: (c)

70. An arbitration agreement providing for arbitration of four arbitrators is under the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 to be construed as an agreement for arbitration by:

1. Sole arbitrator
2. Five arbitrators
3. Three arbitrators
4. Four arbitrators only.

Answer: (a)

71. The arbitration awards rendered in arbitration proceedings commenced before the coming into force of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996:

1. Are to be challenged as per the provisions of the Arbitration Act, 1940 only
2. Are to be challenged as per the provisions of the 1996 Act
3. Are to be challenged as per the provisions of the Arbitration Act, 1940 only unless otherwise agreed by the parties
4. Cannot be challenged since the 1940 Act stands repealed on coming into force of the 1996 Act.

Answer: (c)

72. An arbitration award under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:

1. Has the status of a decree immediately on publication/pronouncement thereof
2. Does not have the status of a decree
3. Has the status of a decree only after the time of three months for making an application to set aside the same has expired or such application having been made has been refused
4. Has the status of a decree only after time of three months and a further period of 30 days for making an application to set aside the same has expired or such application having been made has been refused.

Answer: (c)

73. An application under Section 11 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 can be filed:

1. Only in the High Court
2. In the court of appropriate pecuniary jurisdiction dependent upon the subject matter of the dispute i.e. either before the Civil Judge or the District Judge or the High Court
3. In the court of appropriate pecuniary jurisdiction dependent upon the subject matter of the dispute i.e. either before the Civil Judge or the District Judge or the High Court only if the Chief Justice has delegated his powers under Section 11 to the Civil Judges and the District Judges
4. Either in the Supreme Court or in the High Court.

Answer: (d)

74. A Civil Court before which an action is brought in a matter which is subject matter of arbitration, while referring the parties to arbitration on application of any party, is under the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 required to:

1. Dispose of the suit in terms of said reference
2. Dismiss the suit
3. Decree the suit
4. Stay further proceedings in the suit and adjourn the suit sine die.

Answer: (a)

75. In an arbitration between two parties before an arbitrator appointed by the Chief Justice of the High Court (in exercise of powers under Section 11 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996), the rival parties have filed claims against each other. When the arbitration was at an advanced stage, the parties are of the opinion that the arbitrator is, likely to reject the claims/counter-claims of both the parties. The parties jointly inform the arbitrator that they are not willing for arbitration before him and stop appearing before him. The parties thereafter:

1. Are entitled to appoint another arbitrator and to start arbitration proceedings de novo
2. Are not entitled to a second round, the same being in contravention of public policy prohibiting forum shopping
3. Are entitled to appoint another arbitrator but the discretion whether to commence the arbitration proceedings de novo or from the stage where left by the earlier arbitrator is of the Arbitrator and not of the parties
4. Cannot themselves appoint the second arbitrator and are required to again approach the Chief Justice for the appointment of another arbitrator.

Answer: (a)

76. ‘A’ has lent money to ‘B’ under a written agreement containing an arbitration clause. The Agreement does not specify the time of repayment. Rather the money was repayable on demand by ‘A’. ‘A’ after five years of the date when the loan was made demanded money which was not repaid by ‘B’. The parties could not arrive at a consensus on the appointment of arbitrator also. ‘A’ filed an application under Section 11 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 before the Chief Justice of the High Court for appointment of an arbitrator. ‘B’ in response to the said application contends that the claim of ‘A’ is stale and barred by time and thus arbitrator be not appointed. The Chief Justice:

1. Is bound to appoint the arbitrator leaving the plea of limitation open for decision in arbitration award
2. Is bound to dismiss the application for appointment of arbitrator since the claim adjudication whereof is sought by arbitration is barred by time
3. Is required to make ‘B‘ deposit the money in Court and then appoint the arbitrator and refer the parties to arbitration
4. Is required to require ‘A’ to furnish security for actual costs of arbitration to be incurred by ‘B’ and then appoint the arbitrator and refer the parties to arbitration.

Answer: (b)

77. A Private Limited Company having registered office at Delhi advances monies to another Private Limited Company also at Delhi. Disputes and differences arise relating to the said transaction and the parties agree to the arbitration at Mumbai by a retired Judge of the Bombay High Court who both trust. The arbitrator delivers an award at Mumbai. The Private Limited Company which had advanced monies during the pendency of the arbitration proceedings also shifts its registered office at Mumbai. The award dismisses the claims of the said Private Limited Company. The challenge to the said award can be made:

1. Only in the Courts at Mumbai where the arbitration award was pronounced
2. Only in the Courts at Delhi
3. Either in the Court at Mumbai or in the Court at Delhi
4. Though challenge can be made in the Court at Mumbai also but the Court at Mumbai will return the objection for filing in the Court at Delhi, the challenge being to an award of the retired Judge of the Bombay High Court.

Answer: (b)

78. ‘A’ files a petition for eviction under the Delhi Rent Control Act, 1958 against ‘B’ before the Court of the Additional Rent Controller. ‘C’ thereafter files a suit in the Court of the Civil Judge for declaration that it is in fact he i.e. ‘C’ who is tenant in the premises under and alleging that ‘A’ has intentionally instituted the petition against ‘B’ who is in collusion with ‘A’, to obtain an eviction order and to in execution thereof in fact evict ‘C’ from the premises. ‘C’ along with the said suit also files an application for interim injunction to, restrain ‘A’ from proceeding further with the eviction petition in the Court of the Additional Rent Controller:

1. ‘C’ is entitled to such interim injunction
2. ‘C’ is not entitled to such interim injunction
3. The two proceedings are to be clubbed for trial together
4. The suit filed by ‘C’ is misconceived and itself liable to be rejected.

Answer: (b)

79. ‘A,’ a renowned architect agrees to design a palatial residence for ‘B’. ‘B’ in order to secure undivided attention of ‘A’ also incorporates a term in the contract that ‘A’ shall during the period of three years which was the time stipulated for completion of the works shall not take up any other assignment and shall thereafter also not design, a similar residence for any other client. ‘A’ in spite of receiving full payment in advance refuses to even give any designs to ‘B’ and for the reason whereof the work could not commence. ‘B’ sues ‘A’ for specific performance and in alternative recovery of advance and damages and also for injunction restraining ‘A’ from taking up any other assignments for period of three years:

1. ‘B’ is entitled to a decree of specific performance as well as injunction
2. ‘B’ is not entitled to a decree for specific performance and is entitled only to injunction
3. ‘B’ is not entitled to any relief
4. ‘B’ is entitled to refund of advance and damages for breach of contract, and also to the relief of permanent injunction.

Answer: (d)

80. A citizen institutes a suit for injunction restraining several Radio Channels from playing music without permission of and paying royalty etc. to the persons holding Intellectual Property Rights in the said music alleging such action of the Radio companies to be in violation of laws. It is specified in the plaint itself that the plaintiff himself does not hold any copyright and is not personally interested in the matter but has filed the suit merely for enforcing the laws which the authorities had failed to enforce:

1. The plaint in such a suit is liable to be rejected at the threshold as barred by law
2. The suit is entitled to proceed to trial and to be decided only thereafter
3. The suit is entitled to be decreed forthwith since the Radio companies have been unable to show any authorization for holders of rights in the said music
4. The Civil Judge is required to convert the suit into a Public Interest Litigation.

Answer: (a)

81. Specific performance of any contracts may be ordered where:

1. There exists no standard for ascertaining actual damage by non-performance of the act to be done
2. Compensation is adequate relief
3. The performance of the contract involves performance of a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise
4. The contract is by its nature determinable.

Answer: (a)

82. A time barred debt can be claimed:

1. As a set off
2. As a counter claim
3. As a fresh suit
4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

83. Acknowledgment after the period of limitation:

1. Is of no effect
2. Gives rise to an independent & enforceable contract
3. Is of great value
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

84. What does the legal maxim ‘sui generis’ mean?

1. On its own strength
2. The only one of its kind
3. On the threshold
4. Among other things.

Answer: (b)

85. A suit for damages for breach of contract can be filed at a place:

1. Where the contract was executed
2. Where the contract was to be performed
3. Where the plaintiff resides
4. Both a and b.

Answer: (d)

86. In a suit for maintenance, arrears can be claimed tor the last:

1. Seven years
2. Twelve years
3. One year
4. Three years.

Answer: (d)

87. Upon the coming into force of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008:

1. The Indian Partnership Act, 1932 stands repealed
2. The provisions of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 ipso facto apply to Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs) also
3. Both the Acts co-exist, but the provisions of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 are not applicable to LLPs save as otherwise provided
4. The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 is applicable only to Metropolitan cities as defined therein, and the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 applies to the rest of the country.

Answer: (c)

88. A, B and C are partners in a firm. C retires and X is admitted as a new partner. The firm did not give a public notice of the change but continued its business in the old firm name. Z, a customer of the firm, deals with the firm after the change and the firm becomes indebted to him.

1. Z can sue A, B, C and X
2. Z can sue A, B and C
3. Z can sue either A, B and C, or, A, B and X
4. Z can sue A and B only.

Answer: (a)

89. A partnership firm is:

1. A distinct legal entity from its partners
2. An independent juristic person
3. An agent of its partners
4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

90. Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer:

1. When it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
2. When it is put in the course of transmission to him so as to be out of power of the acceptor
3. When the acceptance is communicated to the proposer
4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

91. “If only a part of the consideration or object is unlawful, the contract under Section 24 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 shall be:

1. Valid to the extent the same are lawful
2. Void to the extent the same are unlawful
3. Void as a whole
4. Valid as a whole.

Answer: (d)

92. Two parties entered into a contract. They later realized that there was a mistake in their understanding of the law as applicable in India. This makes their contract:

1. Non est
2. Void
3. Voidable
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

93. A contract caused by mistake of law not in force in India:

1. Is void
2. Is voidable
3. Has the same effect as though it was caused by a mistake of fact
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

94. An agreement in restraint of trade is:

1. Valid
2. Void
3. Void to the extent of such restraint
4. Voidable.

Answer: (c)

95. Which of the following is an offer?

1. A bid at an auction sale
2. Banker’s catalog of charges
3. Menu card at a restaurant
4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

96. If a future event on which a contract is contingent is the way in which a person will act at an unspecified time, the event shall be considered to become impossible:

1. When such person does anything which renders it impossible that he should so act within any definite time
2. Otherwise than under further contingencies
3. Both a & b above
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

97. In which of the following cases, a contingent contract becomes void:

1. If the contract contemplates the happening of the event within a certain time, and event does not happen or its happening becomes impossible
2. If the performance is made to depend upon an event which is already impossible
3. If the event contemplated does not happen
4. Both a & b above.

Answer: (d)

98. Note (Questions 98-100): These questions have only two answer options. Choose the most appropriate option.

An unregistered partnership firm has claims arising from a contract against several persons. After obtaining registration of the firm with the Registrar of Firms, on the last date of limitation for filing the suit, the suit is filed on the same date. The defendants take a plea that the plaintiff firm was not registered neither at the time of the agreement nor at the time when alleged cause of action accrued and the registration on the last date of limitation is of no avail and the suit is hence bad.

Whether the said defence has any merit?

1. Yes
2. No.

Answer: (b)

99. ‘A’ inducts ‘B’ as a tenant in the property. ‘B’ pays rent to ‘A’ for three months when ‘A’ suddenly dies. Owing to inter se disputes between the legal heirs of ‘A’, neither any rent is paid by ‘B’ over twelve years nor does any legal heir of ‘A’ otherwise deals with ‘B’ with respect to the said property. After nearly fifteen years when the disputes between the legal heirs of ‘A’ are resolved, the legal heir who is so held entitled to the property demands arrears of rent from ‘B’ as well as determines the tenancy of ‘B’ and demands possession from ‘B’. ‘B’ refuses contending that he has become owner of the property by adverse possession since he was not treated as a tenant for nearly fifteen years.

Is there any merit in the said defence of ‘B’?

1. Yes
2. No.

Answer: (b)

100. Under the law in India a joint promise as distinct from a joint and several promise is liable alone to discharge the joint promise.

1. True
2. False.

Answer: (a)

101. Directions (Questions 101-110): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question given below it.

Reasoning is an argument in which certain things being laid down, something other than these necessarily comes about through them. It is a ‘demonstration’, when the premises from which the reasoning starts are true and primary, or are such that our knowledge of them has originally come through premises which are primary and true. Reasoning on the other hand Is dialectical, if it reasons from opinions that are generally accepted. Things are ‘true’ and ‘primary’ which are believed on the strength not of anything else but of themselves: for in regard to the first principle of science it is improper to ask any further for the why and wherefore of them; each of the first principle should command belief in and by itself. On the other hand, those opinions are “generally accepted” which are accepted by everyone or by the majority or by the philosophers, that is, by all or by the majority or by the most notable and illustrious of them. Again reasoning is contentious if it starts from opinions that seem to be generally accepted but are not really such or again if it merely, seems to reason from opinions that are or seem to be generally accepted. For not every opinion that seems to be generally accepted actually is generally accepted. For in none of the opinions which we call generally accepted is the illusion entirely on the surface, as happens in the case of the principals of contentious arguments; for the nature of the fallacy in these is obvious immediately, and as a rule even to persons with little power of comprehension. So then, of the contentious reasonings mentioned, the former really deserves to be called “reasoning” as well, but the other should be called “contentious reasoning”, but not reasoning since it appears to reason, but does not really do so. Further, besides all the reasonings we have mentioned there are the reasonings that start from the premises peculiar to the special sciences, as happens (for example) in the case of geometry and her sister sciences. For this form of reasoning appears to differ from the reasonings mentioned above; the man who draws a false figure reason from things that are neither true and primary, nor yet generally accepted. For he does not fall within the definition; he does not assume opinions that are received either by everyone, or by the majority, or the philosophers – that is to say, by all, or by most, or by the most illustrious of them. But he conducts his reasoning upon assumptions, which though appropriate to the science in question – , are not true; for the effects his misreasoning either by describing the semi Circles wrongly, or by drawing certain lines in a way in which they could not be drawn.

According to the author, misreasoning is:

1. A form of reasoning
2. Contentious reasoning
3. Dialectical reasoning
4. Demonstrative reasoning.

Answer: (a)

102. A ‘First Principle’ is:

1. Anything that is generally accepted as
2. A belief that is true and primary
3. Things that are generally accepted but not really are such
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

103. Which form of reasoning draws from neither true and primary, nor yet generally accepted?

1. Dialectic
2. Demonstration
3. Contentious
4. Misreasoning.

Answer: (d)

104. Reasoning based on subjective opinions will best be called:

1. Demonstration
2. Contentious
3. Misreasoning
4. Dialetic.

Answer: (b)

105. How many forms of contentious reasoning are mentioned by the author?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4.

Answer: (b)

106. “Arguments that are derived from premises that are believed to be true on their own strength are:

1. Dialectical
2. Demonstrative
3. Contentious
4. Misreasoning.

Answer: (b)

107. Which one of the following is not a synonym of ‘fallacy’?

1. Erroneous belief
2. Myth
3. Canard
4. Platitude.

Answer: (d)

108. Which one of the following is not an antonym of ‘illustrious’?

1. Unknown
2. Nameless
3. Anonymous
4. Distinguished.

Answer: (d)

109. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Opinions that are generally accepted may not be true and primary
2. Opinions that are true and primary can never be the premises for reasoning
3. Arguments that start from false statements or figures do not lead to the correct conclusions
4. Misreasoning can only be used to prove geometrical theorems.

Answer: (a)

110. Contentious means:

1. Given
2. Debatable
3. Obvious
4. Without doubt.

Answer: (b)

111. Directions (Questions 111-117): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question given below it.

One major obstacle in the struggle to lower carbon dioxide emissions, which are believed to play a role in climate change, is the destruction of tropical rain forests. Trees naturally store more carbon dioxide as they age, and the trees of the tropical rain forests in the Amazon, for example, store an average of 500 tons of carbon dioxide per hectare (10,000 square miles). When such trees are harvested, they release their carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. This release of carbon dioxide through the destruction of tropical forests, which experts estimate accounts for 20% of global carbon dioxide emissions annually, traps heat in the earth’s atmosphere, which leads to global warming.

The Kyoto treaty set forth a possible measure to curtail the rate of deforestation. In the treaty, companies that exceed their carbon dioxide emission limits are permitted to buy the right to pollute by funding reforestation projects in tropical rain forests. Since forests absorb carbon dioxide through photosynthesis, planting such forests helps reduce the level of atmospheric carbon dioxide, thus balancing out the companies surplus of carbon dioxide emissions. However, attempts at reforestation have so far been unable to keep up with the alarming rate of deforestation, and it has become increasingly clear that further steps must be taken to curtail deforestation and its possible deleterious effects on the global environment.

One possible solution is to offer incentives to governments to protect their forests. While this solution could lead to a drastic reduction in the levels of carbon dioxide, such incentives would need to be tied to some form of verification, which is extremely difficult, since most of the world’s tropical forests are in remote areas-, like Brazil’s Amazon basin or the island of New Guinea, which makes on-site verification logistically difficult. Furthermore, heavy cloud cover and frequent heavy rain make conventional satellite monitoring difficult.

Recently, scientists at the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency have suggested that the rates of deforestation could be monitored using new technology to analyze radar waves emitted from a surveillance satellite. By analyzing multiple radar microwaves sent by a satellite, scientists are able to prepare a detailed, high-resolution map of remote tropical forests/ unlike photographic satellite images, radar images can be measured at night and during days of heavy cloud cover and bad weather.

Nevertheless, critics of government incentives argue that radar monitoring has been employed in the past with little success, citing the Global Rain Forest Mapping Project which was instituted in the mid-1990s amid concern over rapid deforestation in the Amazon. However, the limited data of the Mapping Project was due only to the small amount of data that could be sent from the satellite. Modern satellites can send and receive 10 times more data than their predecessors of the mid-1990s, obviating past problems with radar monitoring. Furthermore, recent technological advances in satellite radar that allow for more accurate measurements to be made, even in remote areas, make such technology a promising step in monitoring and controlling global climate change.

Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?

1. Although scientists continue to search for a solution, there is, as yet, no good solution for the problem of rain forest deforestation
2. One major obstacle to lessening the contribution of atmospheric carbon dioxide caused by deforestation may be removed through satellite radar monitoring
3. Recent increases in the rate of deforestation of tropical rain forests have caused serious concern and spurred efforts to curb such deforestation
4. Although an excellent first step, the solutions set forth by the Kyoto treaty will not significantly curb the rate of deforestation unless companies begin to lessen their carbon dioxide emissions.

Answer: (b)

112. It can be inferred from the passage that photographic satellite images:

1. Are impervious to bad weather
2. Cannot be used efficiently at night
3. Are less expensive than radar monitoring
4. Were extensively used in the 1990s to measure tropical forest deforestation.

Answer: (b)

113. Which one of the following most accurately describes the author’s attitude toward radar monitoring as expressed in the passage?

1. Wary skepticism
2. Cautious ambivalence
3. Grudging respect
4. reasoned optimism.

Answer: (d)

114. The information presented in the passage implies which one of the following about the Mapping Project?

1. The project was unsuccessful because it used only satellite radar monitoring
2. If the satellite had been able to send more data, the project may have been successful
3. It was established by the Kyoto treaty in response to widespread concern over deforestation
4. The project was designed to monitor only forests in Brazil’s Amazon basin and the forests on the island of New Guinea.

Answer: (b)

115. According to the passage, each of the following is true about tropical rainforests except:

1. Harvested trees release carbon dioxide
2. They are sometimes subject to heavy cloud cover
3. They are protected from deforestation by the Kyoto treaty
4. They are not always easily reachable by modern transportation.

Answer: (c)

116. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the author’s argument against the critics of government incentives?

1. Radar images sent by satellites in the mid-1990s would have needed to have stored 100 times more data in order to have been useful for radar monitoring
2. New technology promises other forms of monitoring that may be even more effective than radar monitoring
3. The cost of radar monitoring may render it more expensive than some countries can afford
4. No form of monitoring can ever offer complete assurance of a government’s compliance with deforestation incentives.

Answer: (a)

117. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

1. A problem is described and a possible solution to the problem is suggested; the methodology for implementing such a solution is described, difficulties with the implementation are noted and the solution is dismissed
2. A problem is described and a possible solution to the problem is suggested; the solution’s shortcomings are noted, an alternative solution is suggested, then qualified in light of new evidence
3. A solution to a problem is described, multiple solutions to the problem are discussed, the possible outcomes of each solution are evaluated and one solution is recommended over the others
4. A problem is described and a possible solution to the problem is suggested; possible shortcomings of the solution are noted, an alternative solution is suggested and a potential obstacle to the solution is discussed.

Answer: (d)

118. Directions (Questions 118-121): Find the synonym for the (bracketed) word.

He is showing (immutable) courage under these circumstances.

1. unchanging
2. upbeat
3. weak
4. wavering.

Answer: (a)

119. I enjoy Delhi because of the (balmy) winters.

1. rainy
2. warm
3. humid
4. sultry.

Answer: (b)

120. She found the smell of the bottle (repugnant) and asked for another bottle.

1. delightful
2. disgusting
3. stale
4. attractive.

Answer: (b)

121. Looking at the hot samosa made her drool (incessantly).

1. instantly
2. continuously
3. greedily
4. momentarily.

Answer: (b)

122. Directions (Questions 122-126): Select the appropriate response to complete these sentences below.

…………. most important event in India’s history was the revolution of 1857.

1. The
2. It was the
3. That the
4. There was a.

Answer: (a)

123. Vegetables are an excellent source ……… vitamins.

1. of
2. has
3. where
4. that.

Answer: (a)

124. Microscopes make small things appear larger than ……….

1. really are
2. are really
3. are they really
4. they really are.

Answer: (d)

125. The city of Gurgaon ……….. over 70 square miles.

1. covers
2. that covers
3. covering
4. is covered.

Answer: (a)

126. Her struggle to make a place for herself in corporate law is the kind of life story ………… a fascinating novel might be written.

1. of
2. by
3. for whom
4. about which.

Answer: (d)

127. Directions (Questions 127-136): Select the nearest and most accurate meaning.

Stolid:

1. Stubbornly rebellious
2. One who leads a simple life of self-denial
3. Solemn moral talk; sermon
4. Showing little emotion.

Answer: (d)

128. Encroach:

1. Severity
2. Acting as a dictator
3. Having an affable manner; carefree
4. To trespass or intrude.

Answer: (d)

129. Potent:

1. Brag; glory over
2. A gentle wind, breeze
3. Having great power or physical strength
4. Moral corruption; badness.

Answer: (c)

130. Impolitic:

1. Separate, split
2. Improper, unfortunate
3. Unwise, imprudent
4. To disagree; differ in opinion.

Answer: (c)

131. Frenetic:

1. Unrest; agitation
2. Thrift
3. Frenzied
4. To grow together.

Answer: (c)

132. Neologism:

1. To soak or stain; permeate
2. Not clear; uncertain
3. Giving a new meaning to an old word
4. To agree without protest.

Answer: (c)

133. Tepid:

1. Having the composition of wood
2. Unnecessary; extra
3. Of a strange nature; weird
4. Lacking warmth, interest.

Answer: (d)

134. Hamper:

1. Interfere with; hinder
2. Plausible, but deceptive; apparently, but not actually, true
3. Having to do with shepherds or the country
4. To make new; renovate.

Answer: (a)

135. Callow:

1. Sweet-smelling; having the odor of a particular thing
2. Unclear or vague
3. Solitary
4. Being young or immature.

Answer: (d)

136. Discerning:

1. To show sympathy for
2. Having great power or physical strength
3. To characterize or make as disgraceful
4. Distinguishing one thing from another; having good judgment.

Answer: (d)

137. Directions (Questions 137-141): The sentences given in each question make up a paragraph. However, these sentences are not in the proper order. Find the logical sequence for these sentences.

A. After doing so, the heart of your cash flow will be strong and healthy.

B. Cash is your business’s lifeblood.

C. If managed poorly, then your company could go into cardiac arrest.

D. To prevent your business from suffering heart attacks, you should learn to manage cash flow in a well-thought-out manner.

E. Several ways to do this are by generating a project rate of returns as well as determining possible problems with liquidity.

1. A B E C D
2. C B A D E
3. B C D E A
4. A B D E C.

Answer: (c)

138. A. This factor is exclusion – access to these technologies remains excluded by class, race and gender.

B. In comparing these two things, we must realize that there is one important factor for the limitation of the former.

C. The rise of digital technologies has the potential to open new directions in ethnography.

D. Despite the ubiquity of these technologies, their infiltration into popular research methods is still limited compared to the number of online scholarly research portals

1. C D B A
2. B A C D
3. C D A B
4. B C D A.

Answer: (a)

139. A. Adam Smith is often described as the “founding father of economics”.

B. One prominent book he wrote was “Theory of Moral Sentiments”.

C. A great deal of what is now considered standard theory about markets was developed by Adam Smith.

D. It is a very important text in the history of moral and political thought because he talks about individual freedom.

E. According to Smith, this freedom is rooted in self-reliance and the ability of an individual to pursue his self-interest.

1. E D A C B
2. A C B E D
3. E B A D C
4. A C B D E.

Answer: (d)

140. A. Today, the study of the fruit fly has expanded to research for human diseases.

B. This is because the fruit fly’s robust genetic system makes it an invaluable tool for scientists studying current inheritance diseases.

C. These diseases include Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s and Huntington’s disease.

D. In past decades, scientists have used the fruit fly as a model organism for examining biological systems.

1. D A B C
2. D A C B
3. B A C D
4. C B A D.

Answer: (a)

141. A. It is one of a group of disorders known as Parasomnias: unusual activities that occur during sleep

B. Sleepwalking occurs in the deep stage of sleep when slow brain waves begin to appear

C. These range from teeth grinding and restless leg syndrome to eating while asleep

D. Our body functions according to a 24-hour cycle called a Circadian rhythm

E. Some researchers believe that slight difference in this cycle could be linked to sleepwalking

1. B A C E D
2. C D B A E
3. E B A C D
4. B A C D E.

Answer: (d)

142. Directions (Q.142-146) Complete the following sentences.

You can have ……. the chicken dish ………. the fish dish tonight.

1. both, or
2. whether, or
3. either, or
4. either, and.

Answer: (c)

143. …….. my aunt ……… my uncle live in India.

1. either, nor
2. neither, and
3. both, and
4. both, or.

Answer: (c)

144. She lead the team ………. in statistics ……….. by virtue of her enthusiasm.

1. not only, but also
2. both, and
3. neither, nor
4. not only, but.

Answer: (a)

145. My sister decided to go to two countries this year. She is going to Ireland ……… Scotland.

1. either
2. and
3. nor
4. or.

Answer: (b)

146. The twelfth grade ……….. marks the end of high school …………….. the beginning of adulthood.

1. not only, but also
2. neither, nor
3. either, or
4. not only, and also.

Answer: (a)

147. Directions: (Q147-150) Select the most appropriate meaning of these idioms.

Pack like sardines:

1. To squeeze in as many people or things as possible
2. In a box
3. Packed in aluminium foil
4. Canned in a tin.

Answer: (a)

148. To hold a heavy heart:

1. About to die
2. To be weighed down with sorrow
3. Helping a sad person out
4. To be fed up with life.

Answer: (b)

149. My heart goes out to you:

1. I love you
2. I feel sympathy for you
3. I feel angry with you
4. I want to marry you.

Answer: (b)

150. Worth its weight in gold:

1. To be as shiny as gold
2. To be very heavy
3. Extremely useful or valuable
4. To be priceless.

Answer: (c)

151. Whoever being legally bound by oath to state the truth or being bound by law to make a declaration upon any subject matter is said to give false evidence when:

1. He makes a statement which is false
2. He makes a statement which he believes to be false
3. He makes a statement which he does not believe to be true
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

152. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code codifies, in the field of criminal law, the maxim: ‘de minimis non curat lex’:

1. Section 85 IPC
2. Section 88 IPC
3. Section 95 IPC
4. Section 96 IPC.

Answer: (c)

153. Right of private defence is available:

1. Against all members of an unlawful assembly
2. In a free fight
3. To retrieve from the wrong doer one’s property
4. Both a & b above.

Answer: (a)

154. When an act is abetted and a different act is done by the person instigated, the abettor is liable for the act done in the same manner and to the same extent as if he had directly abetted it, provided:

1. The act done was a probable consequence of the abetment irrespective of being committed under the influence of instigation
2. The act was done with the aid or in pursuance of the conspiracy which constituted the abetment
3. The abettor had reasonable ground to believe that a different act may be committed
4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

155. Circumstantial evidence is considered weaker evidence as compared to direct evidence:

1. “Because it has 2 errors of fallibility: (i) of the fact from which inference is drawn being proved and;(ii) of the inference to be drawn from the fact proved”
2. Because the inference in circumstantial evidence is based upon a presumption
3. Because circumstances sometimes may tell a lie
4. Because circumstantial evidence is based upon the process of deductive logic.

Answer: (a)

156. Whoever causes bodily pain, disease, or infirmity to any person is said to cause hurt. Therefore:

1. Using force is essential to the offence of hurt
2. Direct physical contact between the accused and the victim is essential to the offence of hurt
3. It is irrelevant that no force was used
4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

157. Whether a weapon is a deadly weapon is a question of:

1. Law
2. Fact
3. Opinion of the expert witness
4. Opinion of the judge.

Answer: (b)

158. In the Law of Evidence ‘Fact’ means and includes:

1. Anything perceived by the senses
2. State of things capable of being perceived by the senses
3. Mental condition of which a person is conscious
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

159. Only such facts are made relevant by the Evidence Act as are encompassed by:

1. Section 5 to Section 55 of the Evidence Act
2. Section 5 to Section 32 of the Evidence Act
3. All the Sections of the Evidence Act
4. Only such facts which can be proved as per Section 59 and Section 60 of The Evidence Act.

Answer: (a)

160. Ram aged 25 years, tells Shyam who is aged 17 years and on account of the death of his father is sad, that if Shyam dies by jumping in a burning pyre of a woman he i.e. Shyam would meet his father in heaven and would find bliss. Shyam, aged 17 years, knows that by doing so he would be committing suicide, but on account of instigation by Ram suffers death by jumping in the burning pyre of a woman. Ram is guilty of:

1. Abetment for the suicide committed by Shyam
2. Murder of Shyam
3. No offence
4. Both a & b above.

Answer: (a)

161. The accused driver of a truck while driving on the left side i.e. his side of the road, sees a cyclist coming from the opposite direction, but on the wrong side of the road i.e. in the lane on which the truck was being driven; the road being narrow and the truck driver sensing that the cyclist was peddling negligently, maneuvers his truck on the opposite lane and simultaneously the cyclist suddenly moves to his lane and as a result the truck over-runs the cyclist, causing the death of the cyclist. The truck driver is not guilty of the offence of causing death by rash and negligent act because:

1. He did not have the necessary mens rea
2. He acted bona fide
3. The truck driver upon seeing the risk tried to avoid the risk
4. Was justified in driving the truck on to the opposite lane.

Answer: (c)

162. A dying declaration is relevant evidence under Section 32 of the Evidence Act notwithstanding it being hearsay evidence because:

1. A statement by a person as to the cause of his death is treated in law as a solemn statement
2. If a person is dead and anything said by the person as to the cause of the death is relevant, since the dead person cannot be brought before the court to testify, necessity makes it inevitable to admit said statement
3. Because it is believed that a person would not meet his maker with lies in his mouth
4. Because society owes a duty to dead persons to give them justice.

Answer: (b)

163. In a writing containing an acknowledgment by ‘A’ that he will sell his house in Kolkata to ‘B’ for a sum of Rs. 50,00,000/- or Rs. 60,00,000/- and having blank space with respect to the particulars of the house i.e. the house number, the street number and the colony not being written, and it not being in dispute that ‘A’ has a house on a plot of land measuring 300 sq. yards and another house on a plot of land measuring 1000 sq. yards at Kolkata, in a suit filed by ‘B’ against ‘A’, ‘B‘ can lead evidence:

1. To prove that market rate for land in Kolkata is Rs. 18,000/- per sq. yard in the colony where ‘A’s house was situated; to make good the deficiency in the writing by linking the price of Rs. 18,000/- per sq. as only applicable to the plot admeasuring 300 sq. yards and the rest being the value of the building
2. To prove that unintentionally the house number got omitted to be written and that the writing pertained to the 300 sq. yards land and unintentionally the sum of Rs. 50,00,000/- written on the writing got omitted to be scored of
3. To prove that the property number was left blank because TV told him that he would be exchanging his house on the 300 sq. yard plot of land with another house in a similar colony with his brother and later on the house number would be filled up
4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

164. A boy aged about 14 years is suspected in the commission of the offence of murder. He can be made to join investigation:

1. At the Police Station
2. At his residence
3. At any place
4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

165. ‘A’ is suspected of commission of an offence of murder, trial whereof can only be conducted before a court of Sessions. ‘A’ appears before the Metropolitan Magistrate and moves an application for recording his statement under Section 164 Cr.P.C and grant of pardon. Who has the power to grant pardon?

1. The Court of Sessions
2. The Metropolitan Magistrate
3. Both a & b above
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

166. Accused ‘A’ makes a confession in front of his friend ‘B’ when ‘B’ goes to meet ‘A’ as ‘A’ is to be produced for remand in the court. The confession is that he i.e. ‘A’ has murdered ‘C’. The confession is:

1. Inadmissible in evidence since it is made in police custody
2. Admissible in evidence as made in the court room
3. Admissible in evidence as made before a friend
4. Inadmissible in evidence as made out of fear.

Answer: (a)

167. Right of an accused for plea bargaining in India relates to:

1. Fact bargaining
2. Charge bargaining
3. Sentence bargaining
4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

168. ‘X’ is accused of an offence of rape. He can be subjected to the following tests for investigation:

1. Polygraph test
2. Narco analysis test
3. Brain Electrical Activation Profile (BEAP) Test
4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

169. When examined under Section 313 Cr.P.C., a circumstance incriminating the accused is not put to the accused for his explanation. The said circumstance cannot be used against the accused because:

1. It is inadmissible in evidence
2. It becomes irrelevant for purposes of evidence
3. Law mandates that it cannot be taken into consideration
4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

170. After investigation pertaining to an offence of murder, the Police file a cancellation report. The report can be accepted only by:

1. The Magistrate
2. The Court of Sessions
3. The High Court
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

171. The employer has told the employee in the morning that when the employee leaves the office in the evening to go to his house, he should pick up Rs. 50,000/- lying in the drawer of the employer and deliver the same to ‘X’, to whom the employer owes Rs. 50,000/-. At 12.00 noon, in the absence of the employer, the employee picks up the money and absconds. The employee is liable to be charged for:

1. Criminal breach of trust
2. Cheating
3. Theft
4. Criminal misappropriation.

Answer: (c)

172. ‘B’ assaults ‘A’ using a sharp-edged weapon, resulting in an injury which is 6 cm. long and ½ cm. deep in the right forearm of ‘A’. ‘B’ is liable to be charged for an offence punishable under:

1. Section 323 IPC
2. Section 324 IPC
3. Section 325 IPC
4. Section 326 IPC.

Answer: (b)

173. The Magistrate has convicted ‘A’ for the offence of having cheated a number of investors in the sum of Rs. 10 crores. The Magistrate is of the opinion that the gravity of the offence warrants a sentence to undergo imprisonment in excess of 3 years to be imposed. The sentence in excess of 3 years can be imposed by:

1. The Magistrate after putting the accused to notice
2. By the Court of Sessions to whom the Magistrate must refer the matter to
3. The court of the ACMM/CMM to whom the matter is to be referred to
4. By the Court of Sessions after notice to the accused.

Answer: (c)

174. ‘X’ sends an e-mail to ‘Y’ from Delhi threatening ‘Y’ that certain photographs showing ‘Y’ in a compromising position with a woman shall be posted on the internet if ‘Y’ does not pay Rs. 1,00,000/- to ‘X’. ‘Y’ accesses the e-mail at his office in Kolkata. The offence can be inquired into or tried by a court at:

1. Delhi
2. Kolkata
3. Anywhere in India because the e-mail can be accessed anywhere in India
4. Both a & b above.

Answer: (d)

175. Nothing is an offence if it is done by a person who is a:

1. Boy of 6 years having sufficient maturity to understand the nature and consequence of his conduct
2. Girl below 12 years having sufficient maturity to understand the nature and consequence of her conduct
3. A man aged 100 years
4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

176. When the person competent to compound an offence under Section 320 Cr.P.C. is dead, then:

1. The offence cannot be compounded
2. The offence can be compounded by the prosecutor
3. Legal representative of such person can compound the offence with the consent of the court
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

177. Under Section 209 Cr.P.C. which of the following cases can be committed to the Court of Sessions by a Magistrate, if it appears to the Magistrate that the offence is triable exclusively by the Court of Sessions?

1. A case instituted on a police report
2. A case instituted otherwise than on a police report
3. Both a & b
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

178. ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’, plan to enter into a jewelry shop and commit theft at the shop. They collect the implements of housebreaking and go to the jewelry shop to execute their plan. On reaching there, they find a police patrol van stationed outside the shop and hence return. Their act amounts to:

1. Attempt to commit housebreaking and theft
2. Criminal conspiracy
3. Both a & b
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

179. ‘A’, a police officer, is directed by the court to arrest ‘B’. He arrests ‘C’ after reasonable inquiry believing ‘C’ to be ‘B’:

1. ‘A’ has committed the offence of wrongful confinement as he has arrested ‘C’ instead of ‘B’
2. ‘A’ has committed the offence of wrongful confinement as he was negligent in arresting ‘C’
3. ‘A’ has committed no offence because he arrested ‘C’ in good faith believing himself to be bound by law to do so
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

180. If a series of acts are so connected together as to form the same transaction, and more than one offence is committed by the same person:

1. He shall be charged and tried separately for every such offence
2. He shall be charged with every such offence and tried at one trial for all the offences
3. Some of the offences may be clubbed and tried at one trial
4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

181. ‘A’ going to pilgrimage, entrusts ten gold coins to ‘B’ for keeping in safe custody till his return. ‘B’ sells those gold coins to a goldsmith.

1. ‘B’ is guilty of theft of gold coins
2. ‘B’ is guilty of criminal breach of trust
3. Both a & b
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

182. ‘A’ committed an offence on October 1, 2010. On the said date the prescribed punishment for the offence was 3 years imprisonment. By an amendment on October 1, 2011, the punishment for the offence was enhanced to 7 years imprisonment. The trial was concluded on October 10, 2011, and ‘A’ was found guilty.

1. ‘A’ will be sentenced to 3 years imprisonment
2. ‘A’ will be sentenced to 7 years imprisonment
3. ‘A’ will be sentenced to between 3 and 7 years imprisonment
4. Any of the above.

Answer: (a)

183. Error or omission in framing of charge:

1. Is material in all circumstances and shall vitiate the trial
2. Is material only if it has occasioned prejudice to the accused
3. Is immaterial in all cases
4. Entitles the accused to an acquittal.

Answer: (b)

184. Which of the following charges cannot be compounded without permission of the court before which the prosecution is pending?

1. Section 298 of the IPC
2. Section 426 of the IPC
3. Section 491 of the IPC
4. Section 388 of the IPC.

Answer: (d)

185. In cases in which a judgment is given that a person is guilty of one of the several offences specified in the judgment, but that it is doubtful of which of the offence he is guilty of, the offender shall be:

1. Acquitted of all the charges
2. Re-tried for all the charges
3. Punished for offence carrying the lowest punishment
4. Punished for the offence carrying the highest punishment.

Answer: (c)

186. ‘A’ indulges in voluntary sexual intercourse with ‘B’, a married woman without the consent of her husband. He is guilty of adultery. The married woman ‘B’ is liable to be tried with ‘A’ as an:

1. Abettor
2. Adulteress
3. Jointly as co-accused
4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

187. A person accused of an offence before a criminal court can be called upon to give evidence on oath:

1. Upon a request in writing from the public prosecutor
2. By an application made by the complainant
3. By a direction of the court
4. By the accused, on his own request in writing.

Answer: (d)

188. Dacoity is:

1. Robbery committed by two or more persons
2. Theft committed by five or more persons
3. Robbery committed by five or more persons
4. Both b & c above.

Answer: (c)

189. Police Remand of an accused cannot exceed:

1. 7 days
2. 9 days
3. 12 days
4. 15 days.

Answer: (d)

190. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Section 34 IPC creates a substantive offence
2. Section 34 IPC introduces the principle of vicarious liability for an offence committed by the co-accused
3. Section 34 IPC recognizes that the co-participant in a crime must be made liable for his act in the commission of the crime by the co-accused
4. Both b & c above.

Answer: (b)

191. Leading questions cannot be asked in:

1. Examination-in-chief
2. Cross-examination
3. Re-examination
4. Both a & c above.

Answer: (d)

192. Test Identification Parade pertains to the field of:

1. Investigation
2. Trial
3. Satisfaction of the Investigating Officer that he is proceeding in the right direction
4. Both a & b above.

Answer: (a)

193. Pardon may be tendered to an accomplice under Section 306 Cr.P.C. when:

1. He is not in a position to stand trial due to infirm health
2. When he is declared insane
3. He undertakes to make full and true disclosure of the facts relating to the offence
4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

194. Criminal justice system in India is based on:

1. It is the duty of the State to prosecute whosoever commits a wrong
2. Adversarial trial
3. A wrong doer must be punished
4. Both a & b above.

Answer: (b)

195. “Statement of a witness recorded during an investigation under Section 161 Cr.P.C. cannot be used at a criminal trial except:

1. To contradict the witness
2. When the witness dies after recording examination-in-chief and before cross examination commences
3. Where the court feels that it would be safe to rely upon the said statement
4. Both a & b above.

Answer: (a)

196. ‘A’ rings up the police station and informs the Duty Officer that he has murdered his wife because she was not preparing food for him. The information is duly recorded by the Duty Officer. At the trial for having committed the offence of murder, the statement made by ‘A’ would be:

1. Admissible in evidence because when the statement was made ‘A’ was not in custody of the police
2. Admissible only to the extent that ‘A’ was the informant
3. Admissible to the extent that ‘A’ was the informant and was present in his house and had knowledge of his wife having been murdered
4. Inadmissible in evidence.

Answer: (b)

197. Under Section 200 Cr.P.C. recording of pre-summoning evidence may be dispensed with if:

1. The complaint is supported by an affidavit of the complainant
2. The complaint is made in writing by a public servant
3. The Magistrate feels that ends of justice require pre-summoning evidence to be dispensed with
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

198. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

1. Preparation to commit dacoity is not an offence
2. Preparation to commit murder is not an offence
3. Attempt to commit murder is not an offence
4. Both a & b above.

Answer: (b)

199. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Mens rea is not an essential ingredient of an offence punishable u/s 107 IPC
2. Mens rea is not an essential ingredient of an offence punishable u/s 304-A IPC
3. Mens rea is not an essential ingredient of an offence punishable u/s 364-A IPC
4. Both a & b above.

Answer: (b)

200. Perjury resulting in the conviction of a person for an offence punishable with death attracts the maximum penalty of:

1. Death
2. Imprisonment for life
3. RI for 10 years
4. RI for 10 years and fine.

Answer: (b)